Showing posts with label Previous year solved papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Previous year solved papers. Show all posts

Saturday, 28 August 2021

UPPSC AE Previous Years Engineering Question Paper

Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC) released the notification for Assistant Engineer (AE) Recruitment 2021 

Post Name-State Engineering Services Examination/Assistant Engineer (AE)

Pay Scale-Rs. 15,600-Rs. 39,100/- Grade Pay Rs. 5400

Selection Process-Written Examination Followed By Interview

Exam Pattern

Total Question Paper-2 (Held on same day Morning & Evening shift)

Question Paper I

  • Total Time-150 Minutes
  • Total Question-125 ( 3 marks each question)
  • A. General Hindi-25 Question-75 Marks
  • B. Technical (Electrical/Civil/Mechanical/Agriculture)-100 Question-300 Marks

Question Paper II

  • Total Time-150 Minutes
  • Total Question-125 ( 3 marks each question)
  • A. General Studies-25 Question-75 Marks
  • B. Technical(Electrical/Civil/Mechanical/Agriculture)-100 Question-300 Marks

Important Dates:

  • Online Application Start-13/08/2021
  • Online Application Closed-10/09/2021
  • Fee Last Date-13/092021


Find the UPPSC AE previous years Years (2013 & 2019) Electrical, Civil & Mechanical Question Papers below and boost your preparation: 

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2013 Hindi Question Paper

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2013 GS Question Paper


Mechanical Engineering

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2013 Mechanical Question Paper I & II

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Mechanical Question Paper I

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Mechanical Question Paper II


Electrical Engineering 

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Electrical Question Paper I

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Electrical Question Paper II


Civil Engineering 

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2013 Civil Question Paper I & II

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Civil Question Paper I

Click Here To Download UPPSC AE 2019 Civil Question Paper II


Related Posts:

Sunday, 8 November 2020

BHEL ENGINEER TRAINEE (ET) MECHANICAL Previous Year Solved Papers

 In this article, we are sharing the Official BHEL Executive/Engineer Trainee (BHEL ET) 2019 QUESTION PAPER By Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited. BHEL ET 2019 exam is successfully conducted on 25th May 2019 and 26th May 2019.

Download below the pdf of BHEL ET Mechanical Paper with solutions:



BHEL Exam Pattern for Engineer Trainee:

  • This is an online written test having 240 Objective Type questions of 1 mark each.  
  • The duration will be 2.30 hours. 
  • Personal Interview

Technical/Mechanical - 120 Questions

Reasoning - 50 Questions

General Knowledge - 20 Questions

General English - 50 Questions


Download BHEL ET Mechanical 2019


Download BHEL ET Civil 2019


Download BHEL ET Electrical 2019



Related Posts:

Tuesday, 27 October 2020

Oil India Recruitment 2020 - previous year solved question paper for Senior Officer (Mechanical)

Oil India Senior Officer Previous Papers for Mechanical Engineering PDF Download: aspirants who are searching for Oil India Limited Previous Question Papers with solutions can find below.


Oil India Recruitment 2020: Oil India Limited has released a notification for recruitment to the post of Superintending Engineer (Drilling), Manager (Accounts)/Manager (Internal Audit), Senior Officer, Physiotherapist, Confidential Secretary, and others in Grade C, Grade B, and Grade A respectively. Interested and eligible candidates can apply at the official website https://www.oil-india.com/Current_openNew.aspx to the aforesaid posts on or before 30 October 2020. 

Post Name - Senior Officer (Mechanical), (ME14)


Number of posts: 18 (UR -04, OBC -07, SC -04, ST -01, EWS -02)


Grade & Scale of Pay:  B, Rs. 60000-180000


Required Educational Qualification: Bachelor’s Degree in Mechanical Engineering of minimum 04 years duration with minimum 65% marks


Selection Procedure:



Candidates who qualify in the Computer Based Test (CBT) will be called in a ratio of 1:5 for the GD & PI based on marks in the Computer Based Test (CBT).

Important Dates:

Registration and submission of Form Online : 10:00 hours on 01st Oct 2020    Apply Here

Last Date of Submission of Form Online : 23:59 hours on 30th Oct 2020

Date of Downloading Admit Cards Online TBA    Download admit Card

Date of Examination     TBA


Oil India Senior Officer (Mechanical) 2019 CBT Questions with Solution:

Computer Based Test (CBT) has 100 questions in 1.5hr which consist of four sections as follows:

General English: 15 questions, 15 marks


Reasoning: 15 questions, 15 marks


Numerical Aptitude: 10 questions, 10 marks


Subject/Discipline: 60 questions, 60 marks








Related Posts:



**** 
If you find this study material useful please write us in the comments and share it with other students.

Guide Books from Amazon 


                        



Wednesday, 6 March 2019

ISRO RAC 2014 Question paper with Answers

SOLUTION OF THE WRITTEN TEST BY ISRO FOR SCIENTIST/ENGINEER 'SC' (REFRIGERATION & AIRCONDITIONING) [BE006 & BE010] -2014


21. Two crossed helical gears are used for speed reduction. Gear A has pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 80mm and helix angle 30 deg; Gear B has pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 120mm and helix angle 22.5 deg. If the input speed is 1440 RPM, thenoutput speed in RPM is
(a) 1200                                                                                                (b) 875
(c) 900                                                                                                  (d) 700




22. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by:
(a) dehumidifiers                                                                                               (b) safety relief vale
(c) driers                                                                                                            (d) expansion valve




23. In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively. The arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed is 8 mm/sec the net heat input (in J/mm)
(a) 64                                                                                      (b) 797
(c) 1103                                                                                  (d) 79700


24. Hardness of steel greatly improves with
(a) annealing                                                                                                   (b) cyaniding
(c) normalizing                                                                                                (d) tempering




25.        Work Material                                          Type of Joining
       P  Aluminium                                          1. Submerged Arc Welding
       Q Die Steel                                              2. Soldering
       R Copper Wire                                         3. Thermit Welding
       S Titanium Shet                                        4. Aromic Hydrogen Welding
                                                                         5. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
                                                                         6. Laser Beam Welding
(a) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3                                                                               (b) P-6, Q-3, R-4, S-4
(c) P-4, Q-1, R-6, S-2                                                                               (d) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-6




26.        List A                                                                           List B
       P  Isobaric thermal expansion coefficient                       1. 0
       Q Isothermal compressibility                                          2. ∞
       R Isentropic  compressibility                                           3. 1/v
       S Joule Thomson Coefficient                                           4. 1/T
                                                                                                 5. 1/P
                                                                                                 6. 1/γp
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-6                                                                               (b) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5                                                                               (d) P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-1



27. If the mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is heated to a higher temperature, then
(a) Specific humidity of air increases                                           (b) Specific humidity of air decreases
(c) Relative humidity of air increases                                           (d) Relative humidity of air decreases




28. Threaded bolts of A and B of same material and length are subjected to identical tensile load. If the elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is 12 mm, then mean diameter of bolt B is
(a) 16                                                                       (b) 24
(c) 36                                                                       (d) 48




29. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature at a 333 K. The cooling water enters at 303 K and leaves at 318 K. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
(a) 16.2 C                                                                              (b) 21.6 C
(c) 30 C                                                                                  (d) 37.5 C



30. The shear strength of a sheet metal is 300 Mpa. The blanking force required to produce a blank of 100 mm diameter from a 1.5 mm thick sheet is
(a) 45 kN                                                                                    (b) 70 kN
(c) 141 kN                                                                                  (d) 350 kN




31. A heat engine is supplied heat at the rate of 1700 kJ/min and gives an output of 9 kW. Thermal efficiency and heat rejection in kW of heat engine is
(a) 34.0%, 11.0                                                                                     (b) 28.3%, 10.0
(c) 31.76%, 19.33                                                                                 (d) 32.3%, 9.83



32. When we have combined free and forced convection, Gr/Re^2 is
(a) greater than 1                                                                                        (b) less than 1
(c) almost equal to 1                                                                                  (d) equal to Peclet Number



33. A refrigerator and heat pump operate between the same temperature limits. COP of refrigerator is 4, COP of heat pump would be
(a) 3                       (b) 5                     (c) 4                        (d) data not adequate



34. A carnot refrigerator requires 1.25 kW per ton of refrigeration to maintain a temperatue of 233 K. Its higher operating temperature of the cycle
(a) 318 K                       (b) 313 K                     (c) 315 K                        (d) 316 K



35. The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is
(a) isentropic                       (b) PV =C                     (c) $PV^1.2 =C$                        (d) $VP^1.35 =C$



36. Operating pressure of the refrigerants at the evaporator in the ascending order for any application are
(a) R11, R12, R717, R22                                                                      (b) R22, R717, R12, R11
(c) R11, R12, R22, R717                                                                      (d) R717, R22, R11, R12




37. For vapour compression system using R717 the material of pipe is
(a) Steel                       (b) Copper                     (c) Brass                        (d) Aluminium



38. Air at DBT of 308K and DPT of 293 K passes through a cooling coil which is maintained at 298 K. The process would be
(a) cooling and de-humidification                                                                     (b) sensible cooling
(c) cooling and humidification                                                                           (d) can not predict



39. Room sensible heat loss is 30000 kJ/min and room latent heat loss is 20000 kJ/min. Sensible heat factor is
(a) -0.6                       (b) 0.6                     (c) 0.3                        (d) 3




40. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following of expansion device
(a) Manually operated valve
(b) thermostatic valve
(c) expansion valve
(d) capillary tube





[1-20]  [21-40] [41-60]  [61-80]

Related post: 


ISRO RAC 2014 Question paper with Answers

SOLUTION OF THE WRITTEN TEST BY ISRO FOR SCIENTIST/ENGINEER 'SC' (REFRIGERATION & AIRCONDITIONING) [BE006 & BE010] -2014


1. The condition of stable equilibrium foe a floating body is:
(a) metacentre coincides with centre of gravity
(b) metacentre is below centre of gravity
(c) metacentre is above centre of gravity
(d) centre of buoyancy is above centre of gravity




2. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading edge over a flat plate varies as
(a) $x^{0.8}$                                                                                           (b) $x^{0.5}$
(c) $x^{0.2}$                                                                                           (d) $x^{0.6}$





3. The diameters of a pipe at the section 2 and 2 are 10 cm and 15 cm respectively. Velocity of water flowing through the pipe at section 1 is 5 m/s. Velocity at section 2 in m/s and discharge in cmm is
(a) 2.2 & 2.4                                                                        (b) 2.7 & 2.8
(c) 2.1 & 2.4                                                                        (d) 2.4 & 2.6




4. The velocity distribution foe flow over a flat plate is given $u = \frac{3 y}{4} - y^2$ in which u is the velocity in m/s at a distance y meter above the plate. Shear stress at y = 0.15m is (Take viscosity for fluid is 8.5 poise)
(a) 0.3825 Pa                                                                                       (b) 0.3815 Pa
(c) 0.3835 Pa                                                                                       (d) 0.3845 Pa




5. A gas weighs 16 N/m3 at 288 K and at an adibatic pressure of 25 N/cm2. Its gas constant is
(a) 532 J/kg K                                                                                            (b) 544 J/kg K
(c) 553 J/kg K                                                                                             (d) 523 J/kg K




6. A pipe line AB of diameter 30 cm and of length 400 m carries water at the rate of 50 liters/sec. The flow takes place from A to B where point B is 30 meters above A. Pressure at B is 2 ksc. Pressure at A is (Take f =0.008)
(a) 5.2 ksc                                                                                      (b) 5.3 ksc
(c) 5.0 ksc                                                                                      (d) 5.1 ksc




7. A nozzle is fitted at the end of a pipe of length 300m and of diameter 10 cm for transmitting water. What is the diameter of the nozzle considering maximum transmission of power through the nozzle (f =0.009)
(a) 2.6 cm                                                                                          (b) 2.5 cm
(c) 2.4 cm                                                                                            (d) 2.7 cm




8. A  turbine develops 500 kW under a head of 100 meters at 200 RPM. Its normal speed and power under a head of 81 meters
(a) 184 RPM and 375 kW                                                                                (b) 180 RPM and 365 kW
(c) 184 RPM and 370 kW                                                                                (d) 180 RPM and 361 kW




9. Number of degrees of freedom in a Ball socket joint:
(a) 1                                   (b) 2                                      (c) 3                                       (d) 0




10. Two inelastic spheres of masses 10 kg each move with velocities of 15 m/s and 5 m/s respectively in the same direction. The loss in kinetic energy when they collide
(a) 500 Nm                                 (b) 0                                  (c) 250 Nm                           (d) 1000 Nm




11. In order to have maximum power from a Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be
(a) equal to the jet speed
(b) equal to half of the jet speed
(c) equal to twice the jet speed
(d) independent of the jet speed




12. The alloying element mainly used to improve the endurance strength of steel material is
(a) Nickel                                                                                             (b) Vanadium
(c) Molybdenum                                                                                   (d) Tungusten




13. The percentage improvement in power capacity of a flat belt drive, when the wrap angle at the driving pulley is increased from 150 deg to 210 deg by an idler arrangement for a friction coefficient of 0.3 is
(a) 25.21                                 (b) 33.92                                  (c) 40.17                           (d) 67.85




14. In an interchangeable assembly, shaft of size $25.000^{+0.04}_{-0.01}$ mm mates with a hole of size $25.000^{+0.03}_{+0.03}$ mm. Maximum interface in microns in the assembly is
(a) 40                                 (b) 30                                  (c) 10                           (d) 20




15. A column has a rectangular cross section of 10 x 20 mm and a length of 1m. The slenderness ratio of the column is close to
(a) 200                                 (b) 346                                  (c) 477                           (d) 1000




16. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 5 MPa. The average hoop stress in MPa is
(a) 100                                 (b) 250                                  (c) 500                           (d) 1000




17. A circular disk of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg is used as flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, kinetic energy of flywheel in Joule is
(a) 395                                 (b) 790                                  (c) 1580                           (d) 3160




18. A vibration system consists of a mass of 175 kg, a spring stiffness 700 N/cm and damper with a damping coefficient of 7 N-sec/cm. Damping factor of the system is
(a) 0.15                               (b) 0.25                                 (c) 0.2                           (d) 0.1




19. Two cutting tools are being compared for a machining operation. The tool life equations are Carbide tool: $VT^1.6 = 3000$; HSS tool : $VT^0.6 = 200$, where V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is tool life in min. The carbide tool will provide higher tool life if the cutting speed in m/min exceedds
(a) 39.4                                 (b) 15                                  (c) 60                           (d) 49.3




20. The diameter of suction side of a reciprocating compressor compared to its delivery side is
(a) smaller                      (b) equal                   (c) bigger                     (d) varies according to capacity





[1-20]  [21-40] [41-60]  [61-80]

Related post: 


Tuesday, 5 March 2019

ISRO RAC 2017 Question paper with Answers

SOLUTION OF THE WRITTEN TEST BY ISRO FOR SCIENTIST/ENGINEER 'SC' (REFRIGERATION & AIRCONDITIONING) [BE006 & BE010] -2017


61.For air with a relative humidity of 80%
(a) The dry bulb temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
(b) The dew point temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
(c) The dew point and wet bulb temperatures are equal
(d) The dry bulb and dew point temperatures are equal




62. During evaporative cooling process, wet bulb temperature
(a) Increases                                                                                             (b) decreases
(c) remains constant                                                                                 (d) unpredictable



63. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/sec and latent heat added is 20 kJ/sec. The sensible heat factor for the process is
(a) 0.3                             (b) 0.6                             (c) 0.67                                    (d) 1.5



64. The bypass factor of cooling coil decreases with
(a) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(b) Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(c) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
(d) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows




65. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
(a) 0%                          (b) 50%                                   (c) 75%                              (d) 100%




66. In the metal cutting process, the high cutting speed and large angle of the tool will result in the formation of
(a) continuous chips
(b) discontinuous chips
(c) continuous chips with built up edge
(d) chips of irregular shapes



67. Gear hobbing produces more accurate gears than milling, because in hobbing
(a) There is continuous indexing operation
(b) Both hob and work piece are rotating
(c) Pressure angle is larger than in milling
(d) A special multi-tooth cutter is used




68. The type of tool used in milling machine and broaching machine is
(a) single point cutting tool                              (b) two point cutting tool
(c) three point cutting tool                               (d) multi-point cutting tool




69. The Ackerman steering gear mechanism is preferred to Davis steering mechanism because
(a) Whole of the mechanism in the Ackerman steering gear is on the back of the front wheels

(b) The Ackerman steering gear consists of sliding pairs

(c) The Ackerman steering gear is most economical

(d) Davis steering gear consists of turning pairs



70. The natural frequency of free torsional vibrations of a shaft with torsional stiffness q and I is the mass moment of inertia of the disc attached to the end of the shaft is
(a) $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{q}{I}}$             (b) $2\pi \sqrt{qI}$           (c) $\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{q}{I}}$           (d) $\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{qI}$




71. A is a 3 × 4 real matrix and Ax = b is a consistent system of equations. The highest
possible rank of A is
(a) 1                                   (b) 2                                      (c) 3                                   (d) 4



72. The value of the quantity P where $P = \int_{0}^{1} xe^x dx$ is equal to
(a) 0                                  (b) 1                                  (c) e                                  (d) 1/e



73. The solution of the differential equation $\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-x}{y}$ at x = 1 and y = √3 is
(a) $x-y^2 = -2$                                                                                           (b) $x+y^2 = -4$
(c) $x^2-y^2 = 2$                                                                                        (d) $x^2+y^2 = 4$



74. The analytic function $f(z) = \frac{z-1}{z^2 +1}$ has singularities at
(a) 1 and – 1                                                                   (b) 1 and 1
(c) 1 and –i                                                                     (d) i and –i



75. X is a uniformly distributed random variable that takes value between 0 and 1. The value of E(X3) will be
(a) 0                                                                           (b) 1/8
(c) 1/4                                                                        (d) 1/2



76. The equation $e^x -1 = 0$ is required to be solved using Newton’s method with an initial guess of x0 = -1. Then after one step of Newton’s method, the estimate x1 of the solution will be
(a) 0.71828                                  (b) 0.36784                                  (c) 0.20587                                  (d) 0.0000




77. Laplace transform of $f (t) = t^2 sint$ is
(a) $\frac{3s^2-1}{(s^2+1)^3}$                                      (b) $\frac{2(3s^2-1)}{(s^2+1)^3}$

(c)$\frac{3s^2+1}{(s^2+1)^3}$                                      (b) $\frac{2(3s^2+1)}{(s^2+1)^3}$



78. The residue of a complex function $x(z) = \frac{1-2z}{z(z-1)(z-2)}$ at its poles are
(a) 1/2, 1/2 and 1                                                                          (b) 1/2, 1/2 and -1 
(c) 1/2, 1 and -3/2                                                                         (d) 1/2, -1 and 3/2 



79. The solution of the differential equation $\frac{dy}{dx} + y^2 =0 $ is
(a) $Y = \frac{1}{x+c}$                                                       (b)  $Y = \frac{-x^3}{3} +c$

(c)  $Y = ce^x$                                                                     (d) unsolvable as the equation is non-linear




80. A box contains 10 screws, 3 of which are defective. Two screws are drawn at random
with replacement. The probability that none of the two screws will be defective is:
(a) 100%                                  (b) 50%                                  (c) 49%                                  (d) none of these





[1-20]  [21-40] [41-60]  [61-80]

Related post: 

Contact Form

Name

Email *

Message *